Ruffini’s Theorem

A polynomial P(x) is divisible by a binomial (x − k) if and only if the polynomial evaluates to zero at x = k. $$ P(k)=0 $$

This allows us to determine whether a polynomial is divisible by a binomial of the form (x − k) without performing long division.

It's especially helpful when factoring a polynomial using Ruffini’s method.

Note. To factor a polynomial - that is, to express it as the product of two lower-degree polynomials - we need to confirm that dividing P(x) by (x − k) yields a remainder of zero, R = 0. Only in this case is P(x) divisible by (x − k) and thus factorable.

A practical example

Let’s factor the following cubic polynomial:

$$ 2x^3 - 9x^2 + 11x - 6 $$

We begin by evaluating the polynomial at several integer values near zero:

$$ \begin{array}{c|cr} x & \text{P(x)} \\ \hline -3 & -174 \\ -2 & -80 \\ -1 & -28 \\ 0 & -6 \\ 1 & -2 \\ 2 & -4 \\ 3 & \color{red}0 \end{array} $$

Since P(3) = 0, the polynomial vanishes at x = 3.

By Ruffini’s theorem, this tells us that P(x) is divisible by (x − 3).

$$ P(x) \div (x - 3) = Q(x) \quad \text{with remainder } R = 0 $$

We can therefore write the factorization as:

$$ P(x) = (x - 3) \cdot Q(x) $$

Verification. Let’s apply Ruffini’s method to factor the polynomial. $$ \begin{array}{c|lcc|r} & 2 & -9 & 11 & -6 \\ 3 & & 6 & -9 & 6 \\ \hline & 2 & -3 & 2 & 0 \end{array} $$ This confirms the factorization: $$ P(x) = (x - 3) \cdot (2x^2 - 3x + 2) $$ The result is correct.

Understanding the theorem

If a polynomial P(x) is divisible by (x − k), then the remainder from the division must be zero:

$$ R = 0 $$

According to the Remainder Theorem, when we divide a polynomial P(x) by a binomial (x − k), the remainder equals the value of the polynomial at x = k:

$$ P(k) = R $$

In this case, we’ve assumed that R = 0, which gives us:

$$ P(k) = 0 $$

So, if a polynomial P(x) is divisible by (x − k), then it must satisfy P(k) = 0.

The converse is also true.

If P(k) = 0 for some value x = k, then dividing P(x) by (x − k) yields no remainder (R = 0).

And if the remainder is zero, then P(x) is divisible by (x − k).

Therefore, if P(k) = 0, then P(x) is divisible by the binomial (x − k).

And so the logic flows both ways.

 
 

Please feel free to point out any errors or typos, or share suggestions to improve these notes. English isn't my first language, so if you notice any mistakes, let me know, and I'll be sure to fix them.

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Polynomials