Limit of the Cosine Function

The limit of the cosine of a sequence approaching zero is equal to one. $$ \lim_{a_n \rightarrow 0} \cos a_n = 1 $$

Proof

By hypothesis, the sequence an converges to zero as n approaches infinity.

$$ \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty } a_n = 0 $$

According to the definition of a limit, there exists an index v such that:

$$ -\pi/2 \le a_n \le \pi/2 \quad \text{for all } n > v $$

Note. I chose π/2 because it corresponds to 90°. The cosine of ±90° is equal to zero.

Therefore, for all n > v, the terms of the sequence lie within the interval (-π/2, π/2).

We can now invoke the trigonometric identity relating cosine and sine:

$$ \cos a_n = \pm \sqrt{1 - \sin^2 a_n} $$

Since an stays within (-π/2, π/2), the sine remains strictly less than one in absolute value, and so:

$$ 0 < \sin^2 a_n < 1 $$

Note. The sine at ±90° equals 1.

Thus, the expression \( 1 - \sin^2 a_n \) is strictly positive for all n > v.

It follows that the cosine of an is non-negative:

$$ \cos a_n = \pm \sqrt{1 - \sin^2 a_n} \ge 0 $$

Moreover, since an converges to zero, we have:

$$ \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \sin a_n = 0 $$

Hence, \( 1 - \sin^2 a_n \) approaches 1, and therefore:

$$ \lim_{a_n \rightarrow 0} \sqrt{1 - \sin^2 a_n} = \sqrt{1} = 1 $$

Thus, the limit of cos an as an tends to zero is indeed 1.

And this completes the proof.

 

 
 

Please feel free to point out any errors or typos, or share suggestions to improve these notes. English isn't my first language, so if you notice any mistakes, let me know, and I'll be sure to fix them.

FacebookTwitterLinkedinLinkedin
knowledge base

Limits

Limits of Sequences

Limits of Functions

Limits of Functions of Two Variables

Exercises