Criterion for the Invertibility of Functions

A function that is continuous and strictly monotonic over an interval [a,b] is an invertible function on that same interval. $$ y = f(x) \: \forall x \in [a,b] $$ $$ x = f^{-1}(y) \: \forall y \in [f(a),f(b)] $$

Therefore, on the interval [a,b], there exists an inverse function, commonly denoted as f-1.

A Practical Example

Consider the following function, which is continuous and strictly monotonic on the interval [0,5]:

$$ f(x) = 2x $$

Here’s its graph:

graph of the function on a Cartesian plane

Hence, the function is invertible over the interval [0,5].

$$ y = 2x $$

$$ x = \frac{y}{2} $$

The inverse function is given by:

$$ f^{-1}(y) = \frac{y}{2} = x $$

For each value \( y_0 \) in the image Im(f), there exists one and only one value \( x_0 \) within the interval [0,5] such that \( f(x_0) = y_0 \).

an example of an invertible function and its inverse

Proof Explained

Let’s examine a strictly increasing function defined on the interval [a,b]:

$$ f(a) < f(x) < f(b) \: \forall x \in (a,b) $$

Because the function is strictly increasing, it’s clear that f(a) represents its minimum value and f(b) its maximum.

According to the Intermediate Value Theorem, any function that’s continuous on a closed interval [a,b] takes on every value between its minimum f(a) and its maximum f(b).

$$ y \in [ f(a), f(b) ] $$

Therefore, for each value \( y \) in [f(a), f(b)], there exists a value \( x \) in [a,b] such that:

$$ \forall y \in [ f(a), f(b) ] \: \exists \: x \in [a,b] \: : \: f(x) = y $$

Now, we need to establish that this value of x is unique.

Why? An invertible function must associate exactly one value of x in its domain with each value of y in its codomain. Therefore, we need to show that for every y in [f(a), f(b)], there is one and only one x in [a,b] such that f(x)=y.

Let’s argue by contradiction. Suppose there exist two distinct values \( x_1 \) and \( x_2 \), with \( x_1 < x_2 \), such that:

$$ f(x_1) = f(x_2) = y $$

Since \( x_1 \) and \( x_2 \) are distinct, and because the function is strictly increasing, it would follow that:

$$ f(x_1) < f(x_2) $$

Why? According to the criterion for strict monotonicity, a function f(x) is strictly increasing if it rises continuously across every point x within the interval [a,b]. It cannot decrease or remain constant at any point.

But this contradicts our assumption that \( f(x_1) = f(x_2) = y \).

Thus, for a strictly increasing function, the equality \( f(x_1) = f(x_2) \) implies \( x_1 = x_2 \).

Consequently, there is exactly one x-value corresponding to each y-value, and vice versa.

$$ f:[a,b] \Leftrightarrow f:[f(a),f(b)] $$

The uniqueness of x is therefore proven.

This confirms the invertibility of any function that is continuous and strictly monotonic over the interval [a,b].

And so on. 

 
 

Please feel free to point out any errors or typos, or share suggestions to improve these notes. English isn't my first language, so if you notice any mistakes, let me know, and I'll be sure to fix them.

FacebookTwitterLinkedinLinkedin
knowledge base

Limits

Limits of Sequences

Limits of Functions

Limits of Functions of Two Variables

Exercises